Should the 151st psalm have been included in our Bible?

Sincerely,
Plus On

Dear Plus One,

Psalm “151” is a title given to a psalm that is accepted by the Eastern Orthodox Church as part of the Bible, but that is about it.  Even the Jews consider it to be apocryphal.  An apocryphal book (‘apocrypha’ means ‘hidden’) is a book that was rejected from the Bible because it was considered inauthentic. These books are not written by God and never were accepted by God’s people as divinely inspired.  Some apocryphal books (such as the aforementioned Psalm) were included in the Septuagint, which confuses people at times, but even though some apocryphal books were included in the Septuagint, they were never considered God-breathed Scripture.  Printed Bibles include maps, commentaries, and footnotes… and yet, we don’t consider those things to be Scripture; in the same way, the Septuagint included apocryphal books that were never viewed as the Word of God.

It is well documented that Jews didn’t consider the apocryphal books to be authored by God.  Josephus, a venerated Jewish historian, specifically stated that the apocryphal books weren’t from God in his writing Against Apion.  The Manual of Discipline in the Dead Sea Scrolls stated that the Apocrypha wasn’t inspired.  To further prove the point, the Apocrypha itself says that it isn’t Scripture!  The apocryphal book, 2 Maccabees, specifically says that it isn’t inspired by God in 15:38-39, and the author apologizes for any inaccurate information he might have provided.  Though the apocryphal books are unique historical accounts, they are never quoted in the New Testament, and they were never accepted by the church or the Jewish community as divinely inspired text.  That is exactly why it isn’t necessary that they be included in modern translations of the Bible – they aren’t Bible, just secular history.

     The Bible says in the old times men had two or three wives.  How can that be true because of the Ten Commandments?

Sincerely,
Two Many

Dear Two Many,

The Ten Commandments, which are found in Ex. 20:1-17, never address the issue of polygamy and polygamy was part of life in the Old Testament.  The New Testament teaches that Christians should honor God through monogamy (1 Cor 7:1-2, 1 Tim 3:2).  There are scores of examples of monogamy being God’s preference for man:

1. Adam & Eve were designed monogamously (Gen. 2:24).
2. No polygamy existed until 7 generations after Adam (Gen 4:19).
3. Noah, the last righteous man of his day, had only one wife (Gen 7:13).
4. Qualification for an elder (Tit 1:6)
5. Qualification for a deacon (1 Tim 3:12)
6. Qualification for a worthy widow (1 Tim 5:9)
7. Every New Testament command for a husband or wife assumes monogamy in the commandments (Mk 10:12, 1 Cor 7:3, Eph 5:33, etc.).
8. The comparison of Christ and the church to a husband and wife relies on a monogamous design for marriage (Eph 5:22-23).

In the Old Testament, what did they believe would happen when they died?  Did they go to heaven, or was there some other view?

Sincerely,
What About Them?

Dear What About Them?,

The faithful of the Old Testament believed in heaven just as much as the faithful in the New Testament do.  In Job 14:14, Job stated that when he died, he would change.  King David, had a son die in infancy, and David said that he would see his son again on the other side of death (2 Sam 12:23).  Heb 11:16 says that the faithful of the Old Testament sought a heavenly country.  The Old Testament doesn’t talk a lot about heaven, but it says enough to show us that they believed in it and anxiously awaited it.

      In Isaiah 40:18, 40:25, and 46:5, when God says, “To whom will you compare Me? Or who is My equal?”, is He referring to idols or humans themselves who think they are or have the likeness of God?

Sincerely,
Without Comparison

Dear Without Comparison,

Isaiah 40 and Isaiah 46 are both dealing with idolatry, a rampant problem in Isaiah’s time.  If you look at the surrounding verses (such as Isa 46:6 and Isa 40:20), God mocks the man who makes an idol out of gold or wood and then worships what he has created with his own hands.  God is not made with hands and doesn’t need us to build Him or create Him (Acts 19:26).  Isaiah is ridiculing the idols and showing how foolish it is to worship them.

      Isaiah 43:27, Romans 5:12, 14, and 19 all say that sin started with Adam. But 1 Timothy 2:14 seems to say that Eve started it first.  So who is to blame?

Sincerely,
Is It Her Fault?

Dear Is It Her Fault,

Well, if you asked Adam and Eve, it was the other one (Gen 3:11-13).  Though Eve was the first to eat of the fruit (Gen 3:6), Adam was the patriarch and the first created human.  Rom 5:12-19 is simply saying that from the generation of Adam until the days of Christ, sin reigned.  The sins of Adam and Eve were so tied together that you might as well say that they sinned at the same time.  Like two robbers in the same heist – their sins are intertwined.

What was Israel’s key to success in taking possession of the Promised Land?

Sincerely,
Winning The War

Dear Winning The War,

Israel conquered the land of Canaan for one reason – God was with them.  God told them that if they were faithful (Lev 26:3), He would chase their enemies away (Lev 26:7-8).  If they failed to follow God (Lev 26:14), the Israelites would be terrorized by their enemies (Lev 26:16).  Their success was completely dependent upon their faithfulness and trust in the Lord.

     In Acts 1:20, Peter quotes Psalm 109:8.  Can it be said that Psalm 109, especially verse eight, serves as a prophecy as well as a hymn by King David?

Sincerely,
Pointing To Prophecy

Dear Pointing To Prophecy,

Sometimes, Old Testament verses are quoted in the New Testament because they are prophecies that are being fulfilled – like Peter did in Acts 2:16-21.  However, we must also remember that the Old Testament does more than just prophecy about Christ and His kingdom.  The Old Testament is full of examples and principles that are useful to us (1 Cor 10:11).  In the case of Acts 1:20, Peter and the rest of the apostles had to decide what to do about Judas’ death.  Should they leave his position vacant?  Should they replace him with another apostle?  How should they handle the void created in the apostleship by this wicked man?  Peter quotes Ps 109:8 because that Psalm addresses the principle that it is a good thing when a good man replaces the office of a bad man.  Peter referred to Ps 109, not because it was prophetic about their specific circumstance, but because it is a universal truth that good people should take the place of bad people in positions of authority.

     In the Old Testament, God tells groups of people to go and completely wipe out another group.  How can this be just?  I believe I remember there was an instance where He did it to prove to the Israelites that He would be with them if they followed His directions.  How can this be explained as an acceptable thing?

P.S love the website! It does so much good! Thanks!

Sincerely,
Looking To Justify

Dear Looking To Justify,

God has to make complex decisions that allow individuals the freedom to choose while still keeping the rest of mankind safe.  Every time that God has destroyed a nation, He has done it for the safety of other nations and because that nation had become so corrupt that it was unsalvageable (Gen 15:16, Gen 6:5).  God knows that infants will be safe in His arms when that nation is destroyed, and it is important to remember that there is a difference between God taking someone’s life and a human making that decision.  God is our Creator, and He is intimately aware of where we will go when we die – after all, He is the Judge (Heb 12:23).

When wicked nations are allowed to continue, they inhibit the possibility of future generations obeying God, and they are destructive influences on the rest of mankind.  Thankfully, we have a God who knows where to draw the line – not too soon, and not too late.

     Thank you so much for using God’s Word as a light to our paths; you have helped lots of people with the health of their souls!!!  My question has to do with the ‘spirit of heaviness’ cited in Isaiah 61:3 “To appoint unto them that mourn in Zion, to give unto them beauty for ashes, the oil of joy for mourning, the garment of praise for the spirit of heaviness; that they might be called trees of righteousness, the planting of the LORD, that He might be glorified.”

I have a friend that says depression is a demonic entity that attacks us; he then says the only way around it is praise to Jesus.  Is there any truth to this doctrine?

Sincerely,
Friend Of Eeyore

Dear Friend Of Eeyore,

Isaiah 61 is dealing with the blessings and victory that exist in Christ’s church, and it has nothing to do with demon possession.  Though it is true that focusing on our blessings and showing praise can help us when our spirits are heavy, demon possession is an entirely separate issue.

Evil spirits are real, but they were cast out and their powers greatly reduced by Christ and the apostles.  Demon possession ended not long after the days of Christ.  Jesus made it clear that one of His jobs was to bind the devil and take His strength away by casting out his demons (Matt 12:28-29).  When Jesus’ disciples had come back from their evangelism trips and related to Him that they had cast out many demons, Jesus told them that they were defeating Satan by getting rid of Satan’s demonic minions (Lk 10:17-18).  When Jesus and His disciples cast out demons, they did it permanently (Lk 8:30-33) and bound Satan by their acts.  We no longer have to deal with such overt attacks by the devil because he has been bound by Christ’s sacrifice (Rev. 20:2).  Demon possession no longer exists; the devil must use subtler methods to deceive us now.

     Since Jesus was literate, why didn’t He write the New Testament?  And why doesn’t anyone discuss the fundamental differences between the Old Testament and the New Testament?  How did God talk to Adam and Eve and tell them not to eat the apple when they had never ever spoken any language and wouldn’t have known the words of ‘don’t eat the apple’ or anything else?

Sincerely,
Linguist

Dear Linguist,

When God made Adam and Eve, they were fully-grown adults with a fully-functioning language.  On the same day that Adam was “born”, Adam named all the beasts of the field (Gen 2:20).  Adam and Eve were fully capable of understanding language.  Just like everything else that was originally created, Adam and Eve were fully-formed and mature at inception.  On a separate note, God warned them to not eat the ‘fruit’ of the tree of knowledge of good and evil… it wasn’t an apple (Gen 3:6).

As far as why Jesus never wrote part of the New Testament, anything we say would be purely speculation.  It wasn’t a matter of literacy; it was a matter of God’s wisdom that He didn’t have Jesus write the New Testament.

And lastly, we recommend you read the post, “Two Covenants, One God”.

     How does Psalm 110:3 relate to everyday life?

Sincerely,
Applying Myself

Dear Applying Myself,

Psalm 110 is a Messianic Psalm, which means that it is a psalm that prophesies about Jesus.  Ps 110:1 is quoted by Jesus in Mk 12:36 as referring to Him, and Heb 5:6 quotes Ps 110:4 and says that it is talking about Jesus.  Therefore, we can conclude that the 110^th Psalm is about Jesus.  Ps 110:3 says that Jesus’ people will willingly serve Him and give their youthful strength to the cause of Christ.  As Christians, this should be our character, to always serve God willingly and place Christ first in our lives.

     In Isaiah 24:21, who are the “hosts of heaven on high” or “powers in the heavens above” (NIV)?

Sincerely,
Identity Verification

Dear Identity Verification,

The “hosts of the high ones on high” that Isaiah says will be punished and cast down are synonymous with the “spiritual hosts of wickedness in the heavenly places” found in Eph 6:12.  These represent the spiritual powers that have attacked and attempted to devour mankind since the beginning.

     Does the word “perpetual” in Leviticus 3:17 refer to today?

Sincerely,
Continually Questioning

Dear Continually Questioning,

It refers to today if you are a Jew, but if you are a Christian, it has nothing to do with your life.  Lev 3:17 says that the burnt offering laws were a perpetual law for “your generations”.  The ‘your’ in that context is the Jewish people.  God gave the Old Testament law to the nation of Israel (Deut 4:44).  The word ‘perpetual’ means that something is to be done over and over again, but it doesn’t tell you who it applies to or in what circumstances.

     Let’s say there’s a king, a good one, in Israel.  He makes sure the nation is well and obedient.  He would make sure that the Mosaic Law and God’s commandments were followed.  But let’s say there’s something he’s not sure about, like say, something political about how the laws should be enforced.  He would want inquire of a prophet or seer because they’re gifted to divinely talk to God.  Since a prophet serves as a mouthpiece for God, would he provide the king with political advice as well as spiritual?

Sincerely,
Reviewing Roles

Dear Reviewing Roles,

The kings of Israel would inquire of God all the time for all sorts of things.  The first king of Israel, Saul, was upset because God would no longer answer his inquiries when Saul started behaving wickedly (1 Sam 28:6).  King David asked for God’s advice even when it came to battle tactics (2 Sam 5:23).  It was commonplace for the righteous kings to ask God for advice in all sorts of spheres.

     When God confused those who were building the tower of Babel, He gave them all their own language.  Was that mixed language perfect because God gave it to them?  God is perfect; man is flawed.  How could fallen builders understand and use perfect language?

Sincerely,
Linguist

Dear Linguist,

The word ‘perfect’ simply means that something is ‘suitable or fit for the task’.  A perfect car part is the part that fits your car.  Sometimes, we get confused into thinking that perfect always means that something is without any flaw or problem, but that isn’t true.  Two people can get married and be a perfect marital match… but that doesn’t mean they won’t have struggles or that they both don’t sin at times.

The languages that God created at the Tower of Babel were perfectly suited to the task at hand – confusing the crowds and getting them to scatter (Gen 11:9).

    Who or what are the sons of God in Genesis 6?  I’m not sure if they are literal, as in someone like Jesus, or figurative.  Please help; I’m not understanding this very well.

Sincerely,
Guess Who

Dear Guess Who,

The sons of God referred to in Gen 6:2 are mortal men.  This language seems confusing at first, but it is perfectly scriptural to refer to mankind as ‘sons and daughters of God’.  In fact, Jesus mentions that we are all sons of God (Jhn 10:34-36).  Gal 3:26 refers to christians as children of God.  Humans are made in the image of God (Gen 1:27), and that makes Him our Father (Eph 4:6).  Gen 6:2 is simply stating that men married women, had children, and populated the earth.

     It troubles me that God caused an evil spirit to come on King Saul.  I don’t know another place in Scripture that says He does this.  Does God do that today?

Sincerely,
God Is Good

Dear God Is Good,

God caused that evil spirit to come upon Saul because Saul had turned away from the Lord (1 Sam 16:14).  Saul had failed to serve the Lord, and God withdrew His blessings from him and rejected Saul as king (1 Sam 16:1).  God didn’t randomly curse Saul; Saul had made choices that earned punishment.  As far as whether God does that today, Rom 1:21 says that God allows the hearts of the wicked to be darkened, and He removes His protection from them. How God does that, we don’t know, but He does warn that He punishes the wicked.

     How do I get into the Bible and how do I read the Bible?

Sincerely,
Starting To Study

Dear Starting To Study,

The key to any kind of worship or Bible study is to make it a regular habit. Daniel had a habit of praying (Dan 6:10). Make a decision to put Bible study into your day first (Matt 6:33) and schedule other things around it. Most people fail to study their Bibles because it isn’t a part of their regular life. Make it a part of your morning routine, your lunch break, or bedtime ritual. Somehow schedule it into your life and make it a habit.

After you do that, it is just a matter of what you want to learn first. Many people read a Psalm a day, a chapter of Proverbs each week, or use a ‘read the Bible in a year program’, or you grab one of those five things you want to look at and read away. Any of these is a perfectly acceptable system. In fact, you can buy Bibles that are organized, so that you read a little of the Old Testament and a little of the New Testament every day. For new Bible students, I often recommend reading the gospel of Matthew or the gospel of John first, so that you become acquainted with Christ’s life; then follow that up with the book of Acts and familiarize yourself with the first century church.

The goal is to study your Bible, not just read it. God tells us to study to show ourselves approved (2 Tim 2:15) and to meditate upon God’s Word (Ps 119:15). You could read through an entire book of the Bible in an hour or so but fail to appreciate any of it. Read your Bible with a notepad beside you and a pen or highlighter in hand. Write down your questions and get them answered. Highlight meaningful verses. If you don’t understand something, don’t move on until you do. It is more important that you understand than that you read a large portion of text. And lastly, enjoy your Bible reading time; you are reading the most influential and meaningful book on the planet!

     Some versions like the King James Version have ‘he’ for Judges 1:19, other versions use ‘they’.  ‘He’ would assumingly be Jehovah, and ‘they’ would be the Israelites.  So is it really God or the Israelites who took possession of the land?

Sincerely,
Deed In Hand

Dear Deed In Hand,

Regardless of whether a translation uses ‘he’ or ‘they’ in Judg 1:19, it is referring to the Israelites.  Israel was the one that couldn’t drive out the inhabitants of the valley because they had chariots of iron… God doesn’t have any problem destroying an enemy, no matter what weapons they have.

     Today’s Bible reading took me to Obadiah 18. That verse reads, “So that there will be no survivor of the house of Esau, for the Lord has spoken.”  Reading the footnote, I go to Amos 9:12 and Acts 15:17.  Those verses refer to the remnant of Edom (Esau) that is absorbed into the church.  Can you suggest how to reconcile the inconsistency?  If there are no survivors, how do they who don’t exist become part of the New Testament church?

Sincerely,
Tracing Trees

Dear Tracing Trees,

Obad 1:18 is dealing with the physical destruction of the nation of Edom, Amos 9:12 is discussing the enfolding of people with Edomite ancestry into the church, and Acts 15:17 doesn’t mention Edom at all – the word used there is just ‘gentile’, a generic term for all non-Jews.
In Obadiah, the prophecy is that Esau’s people, the nation of Edom, would be destroyed by the house of Jacob (Israel).  Historically, Edom’s destruction began with the Chaldean invasion under Nebuchadnezzar and was completed by the Jews in the second century BC.  The Edomites, as a nation, ceased to exist and were forced to accept circumcision and the Jewish religion.  By the time Jesus walked this earth, the Edomites had lost all national identity and had been completely absorbed into other nations and cultures.  However, their bloodline continued even when their nation didn’t.  Ironically, the most famous people of Edomite lineage were the Herods.
On the other hand, Amos 9:12 addresses the spiritual enfolding of the people of Edom into the family of David (Amos 9:11).  How did this happen?  When people with Edom’s bloodline converted to Christianity, they became a part of David’s family because they became followers of Jesus.  Jesus was a descendant of David.

     Explain please why in Malachi chapter 4 it refers to the ‘Sun’ of righteousness and not the ‘Son’ of righteousness as the New Testament claims.  Thank you.

Sincerely,
Wordy

Dear Wordy,

Mal 4:2 is using poetic and figurative language to describe what life will be like for christians.  “The sun of righteousness will arise with healing in its wings” isn’t meant to be read literally.  The sun doesn’t have anything to do with morality, and the sun also doesn’t have wings.  The language is metaphorical and should be treated just like we use metaphorical language today.  Malachi 4:2 is saying that when Christ comes, His people will be blessed with warmth to the soul like the sun provides warmth to the body; they will be blessed with liberty like wings are to a bird, and they will have the healing that forgiveness brings the soul.

     The other day, I asked myself, “Was a Gentile in Moses’ day able to become one of God’s people?”  I was (for some reason) told the opposite.

Sincerely,
A Change In Mind

Dear A Change In Mind,

People were able to convert to Judaism if they wanted to.  Ex 12:48 specifically says that if a man wanted to participate in the holy offerings of the Jewish nation and eat the Passover, he could be circumcised.  When he did that, he would become “as one born in the land”.  God did allow for people to convert to Judaism.  Probably the most famous convert to Judaism was Ruth.  Ruth was originally from the nation of Moab (Ruth 1:4), but eventually, she converted and chose to serve Jehovah (Ruth 1:16).

     I’ve read Leviticus 11:9-12 which says, “And all that have not fins and scales in the seas, and in the rivers, of all that move in the waters, and of any living thing which is in the waters, they shall be an abomination unto you.”  Help; I love shellfish!  Please advise.

Sincerely,
Crabby

Dear Crabby,

Under the New Covenant, all food is clean.  God sent Peter a vision of unclean beasts and told Peter to “kill and eat” (Acts 10:13).  Peter told God that he would never eat anything unclean (Acts 10:14), and God informed Peter that He had cleansed all meat (Acts 10:15).  Jesus also specifically said that all food is clean in the New Testament (Mk 7:19).

Later on, the apostle Paul reiterates this idea and says that all meat is clean unless it offends your conscience (Rom 14:20).  So, feel free to eat pork, rattlesnake (if you dare), and clams without fear of sin.

Why does 1 kings 7:26 say, “And it was a hand-breadth thick, and the brim thereof was wrought like the brim of a cup with flowers of lilies: it contained TWO thousand baths.”

And 2 Chronicles 4:5 says, “And the thickness of it was a hand-breadth, and the brim of it like the work of the brim of a cup with flowers of lilies, and it received and held THREE thousand baths.”

Why would one say two thousand baths and one say three thousand baths? You wouldn’t think it’s a contradiction, would you?

Sincerely,
Grasping For Gallons

Dear Grasping For Gallons,

1 Kgs 7:26 and 2 Chr 4:5 are talking about the actual contents of the sea of bronze and the maximum content for the sea of bronze.

1 Kings 7:26 tells us that the molten sea contained 2,000 baths of water while the 2 Chronicles passage tells us that it could receive and hold 3,000 baths.  2 Chr 4:5 adds another word to the passage that is the word you would use for something’s maximum capacity.  Therefore, 1 Kgs 7:26 is simply saying that the sea normally held 2,000 baths of water, and 2 Chr 4:5 tells us that it was capable of holding 3,000 baths – the thing was only filled to two-thirds capacity.  It is like saying my coffee cup holds 16 ounces of coffee, but I only fill it to 10 ounces because that’s all I want to drink.  No contradiction; just two different details about an amazing structure.

      Why is there a New Testament if God never changes?

Sincerely,
Traditionalist

Dear Traditionalist,

God never changes, but humans do, and mankind wasn’t ready for Christ’s law in the beginning.  Gal 3:24 says that the Old Testament law was a tutor to lead people to Christ.  Just like beginning arithmetic must be taught before you dive into calculus, the Old Law prepared people for a greater and more perfect law.  The Old Testament taught people about sin (Rom 3:20), and it showed that all mankind had sinned and fallen short of God’s glory (Rom 3:23).  The Old Testament law was added because of sin and as a preparation for Jesus’ entrance into the world (Gal 3:19).  The Old Law could never save people because all a law can do is condemn the law-breaker – only the gift of Christ’s blood can provide forgiveness for the sinner (Gal 3:13).  The New Testament combines God’s laws with a plan to provide forgiveness for those who break those laws.

     Does the exact Hebrew translation say in the Ten Commandments, “Thou shalt not kill”?  Or does it say something along the lines of “Thou shall not murder”?  Obviously, Moses was a great military leader (along with Joshua, David, Gideon, etc.).  I’m a soldier, and I get asked this question.  I don’t know how to answer it.

Sincerely,
On The Defense

Dear On The Defense,

The Hebrew word used for ‘kill’ in the Ten Commandments literally means ‘murder’.  There is a difference between killing someone in self-defense and pre-meditated, intentional murder of another human being.  The Bible has plenty of examples of faithful people going to war (David killed Goliath in battle – 1 Sam 17:49-50).  The Bible is also full of examples of capital punishment for certain crimes (Num 15:35).  Num 35:15-16 makes a distinction between accidentally killing someone and premeditated murder.  A police officer may have to kill someone while serving the community, but that isn’t murder.  The same is true with a soldier.

According to Mark 11:17, Jesus was angered by the venders selling doves and other merchandise (assumingly for sacrifice) outside and in the Temple. But isn’t it true that those who came afar would sell livestock that they would normally sacrifice and bring money to the temple to buy a sacrifice?  This being favorable over traveling with a live sacrifice that might not survive a journey?  It is easier to travel with money than live animals that could easily be bought at the temple.  Today, we have Christian stores attached to churches that sell trinkets, jewelry, license plates, decorations, etc.  Is this also wrong?

Sincerely,
Peddlers for the People?

Dear Peddlers for the People,

Jesus wasn’t just angered that they were selling things but that they were doing it at the temple and in its courtyards… a place that was supposed to be focused on worshipping God and prayer (Lk 19:46).  On top of that, Jesus said that they were “robbers” because the people who were selling things were charging a premium to make money off of the foreign travelers who couldn’t bring their own livestock ­– a bit like popcorn at the movie theater costs a whole lot more because they can get away with charging it.  Furthermore, Matt 21:12 mentions that there were moneychangers there.  The Jewish priesthood instituted a rule that you could only contribute Jewish money to the temple, so they could make more money off of people who had to convert their Roman currency to Jewish coins.  They made money off of the exchange rate.  It was all about making money.

Separate, but similar, churches that are making money off of various things like coffee stands in the foyers, book sales, jewelry, etc. are exploiting people for more money.  God says how the church should collect funds – through a voluntary offerings from christians on the first day of the week (1 Cor 16:1-2).

     I give 10% of my income bi-weekly (tithes) as instructed from the church.  I give offerings as afforded, as instructed by my church.  I know the lights need to be paid, the mortgage paid, and the needy assisted when they go to the church for assistance.  I can see why we should give to the church who serve the people.  But, I need to know; is tithing a commandment that will truly bring on a curse to the withholder and blessings on the giver? (Malachi 3:8-9)  I have struggled financially and wonder if it means I have no faith if I give less than 10%.  I mean, tithes and offerings are necessary, but many churches need money to sustain itself, a place to worship, a place to fellowship with other saints.  Does God need my money to show I believe He will provide for me?  Is it a form of sacrifice to the temple or a means to take care of the church?  I struggle with the Old Testament applicability today.

Sincerely,
Perplexed Giver

Dear Perplexed Giver,

Mal 3:8-10 teaches some principles about giving, but it doesn’t uphold the “10% or doom” preaching that many money-grubbing churches constantly harp on.  Tithing is a Jewish commandment, not a christian one (more on this in a bit), but the Old Testament is full of examples that give us principles to live by (1 Cor 10:11).  The principle behind Mal 3:8-10 is that when we give to God as He asks, He will bless us for our faithful trust in Him.  This is true in our finances and in every other area of life.  However, just because we give financially doesn’t mean that we won’t ever suffer or have needs.  The belief that giving to God will always get you more money is called the ‘Prosperity Gospel’ – read “Cash Cow” for specifics on that false doctrine.

Now, let’s deal with the specifics of tithing.  Tithing is an Old Testament commandment (Num 18:24), not a New Testament one.  Jews tithe; christians “lay by in store as we have prospered” (1 Cor 16:1-3).  God doesn’t give a specific percentage that christians should contribute.  We must prepare beforehand what we will give (that’s the “lay by in store” part – 1 Cor 16:2).  He also commands that we be “cheerful givers” and that we give as we have “purposed in our hearts” (2 Cor 9:7).  Though tithing (which means ‘one tenth’) is a good rule of thumb for giving… it isn’t a command. The church is instructed by God to take up a collection once a week – you must decide for yourself what a cheerful and faithful giver looks like.

What is the first commandment of God?

Sincerely,
Beginning At The Beginning

Dear Beginning At The Beginning,

Jesus said that the first and greatest commandment was to love the Lord your God with all your heart, and with all your soul, and with all your mind (Matt 22:37-38).  In the Ten Commandments, the first commandment is “you shall have no other gods before Me” (Ex 20:2).  The first commandment a child is given by God is “honor your father and mother” (Eph 6:2).  Each of these are first commands from God.

     Did all of the people in the time of Noah go to hell after they drowned?  The Bible says that everybody will get a chance.

Sincerely,
That’s A Lot Of Death

Dear That’s A Lot Of Death,

The Bible says that during the days of Noah, the whole world was violent and every heart was evil – save Noah and his family (Gen 6:5-6).  The Bible gives us every reason to believe that all the people that died in the flood went to torments.  After all, during the hundred years it took Noah to build the ark, he was also preaching… and no one listened (2 Pet 2:5).

    I have a friend who claims Christians must be baptized by full immersion.  I was wondering why in Luke 11:38 when Jesus ate at a Pharisee’s house, “the Pharisee was astonished to see that He did not first wash [baptizo] before dinner.”  Since I’m pretty sure they did not practice full bodily immersion before dinner (tradition indicates that they just washed their hands), Scripture seems to indicate ‘baptizo’ can mean cleansing or ritual washing as well as immersion.

Also, in Ezek 36:25-27, “I will SPRINKLE clean water upon you, and you shall be clean from all your uncleanness, and from all your idols, I will cleanse you.  A new heart I will give you, and a new spirit I will put within you… and I will put My Spirit within you…” Doesn’t this Old Testament verse pre-figure baptism?

Sincerely,
Just A Dash Please

Dear Just A Dash Please,

The word ‘baptizo’ means ‘immersion’, but context tells us what is being immersed.  In Lk 11:38, the Pharisees would immerse their hands in water to wash them.  In Jhn 3:23, John the Baptist was immersing their entire bodies, and that is why he needed “much water”.  The word doesn’t ever mean sprinkle, splash, or any other type of washing other than full immersion.  In fact, the word ‘baptizo’ is the word that was used by sailors to describe a sunken ship because it had become immersed under the sea.  Your friend is right; we do need to be baptized by full immersion.

As for the verse in Ezek 36:25-27, that is a reference to how God would cleanse the Jewish nation from idolatry.  Ezekiel isn’t referring to literal sprinkling of water; he is referring to the lesson they would learn by spending seventy years in captivity.  When Israel came out of captivity, they would have learned not to worship idols.  Yes, that prophecy pre-dates the New Testament, but no, it doesn’t contradict or alter God’s command to be baptized (1 Pet 3:21, Acts 2:38, Mk 16:16).

How old was David when he slew Goliath?

Sincerely,
Faithful Slinger

Dear Faithful Slinger,

We have absolutely no idea. All we have to gauge David’s age is that Saul referred to him as a “youth” (1 Sam 17:33) and that David said that he was old enough to slay a bear and a lion (1 Sam 17:34). Youth is a pretty generic term that could refer to anything from a baby to someone in their late teens, early twenties. From David’s statements, he was probably somewhere in the range from fifteen to twenty… but as we said, we can’t be sure.

     We had the question in our Bible class about the Year of Jubilee the Israelites were to observe every fifty years.  My question is: did they keep this commandment?  And where is it recorded in the Bible?

Sincerely,
Jubilant

Dear Jubilant,

Lev 25:10-12 says that the Year of Jubilee was a holy year observed every fifty years.  Every fifty years, the Jews were to let all their Jewish slaves go free, and all land that had been leased (you couldn’t sell your land permanently in Israel) was to be returned to their original owners.

As far as we can tell, the Bible never specifically mentions an instance where the Israelites kept this commandment, but that doesn’t mean they didn’t.  There are many feasts and offerings commanded in the Old Testament that we never read about the Israelites following.  The assumption would be that during times of faithfulness, the Israelites remembered these feasts, and when they turned away from God, they probably forgot them.  At least, that is the pattern we see with the Passover feast.  When Hezekiah became king, he reinstituted the Passover because the Israelites, in their idolatry, had stopped keeping it (2 Chr 30:1-3).

     Why did God harden Pharaoh’s heart when Aaron went to tell him to let His people go?  Doesn’t that go against free will??

Sincerely,
Chisel In Hand

Dear Chisel In Hand,

It is true that Ex 7:3 says that God hardened Pharaoh’s heart, but Ex 8:15 says that Pharaoh hardened his own heart.  Both are true.  God hardened Pharaoh’s heart by sending Moses to take Pharaoh’s slaves away, and Pharaoh chose to allow the plagues to anger and harden his heart instead of soften it.  God sent the events that affected Pharaoh’s heart, and Pharaoh chose how he would react to them.

It is the same as the statement, “I made him angry” versus “He got angry with me.”  It is true that our words and actions can cause a reaction from others, but at the same time, when someone gets angry, that is still their choice.  Pharaoh was the kind of person that when confronted with the signs and wonders from God, he hardened his heart and became angry.  God sent the signs and wonders; Pharaoh chose to react like he did.

     We apply the four gospels to our life today, but, of course, Jesus had not died yet during the time of His preaching.  So are the gospels still under the Mosaic Law?

Sincerely,
Timeline Troubles

Dear Timeline Troubles,

Jesus was a Jewish man who lived under the Jewish law, and His life records that fact.  Jesus commanded His fellow countryman to obey the Mosaic laws for cleansing and sacrifices (Lk 17:12-14).  He taught that Moses’ law was right and good, even when the Pharisees and scribes weren’t (Matt 23:1-3), and He answered questions regarding Moses’ laws – like the laws concerning divorce (Matt 19:3-9).  So if Jesus’ entire life was a Jewish one, why are the gospels part of the New Testament?  The answer: Jesus’ preaching.

Jesus lived as a Jew, spoke to Jews, answered Jewish questions, and preached Christianity.  Jesus preached the good news of the kingdom which was to come.  Matt 4:23, Matt 9:35, Matt 11:5, Mk 8:35, Lk 4:18-19, and Lk 7:22 all say that Jesus came preaching the gospel to His kinsmen.  Jesus preached that there was a change coming and that all the world needed to be prepared for it.  Jesus preached the message of a kingdom that was soon to be, the kingdom of Christ that He would buy with His own blood (Acts 20:28).  Another reason that the four gospels are part of the New Testament is that we are commanded to be imitators of Christ (1 Cor 11:1).  The way Jesus lived is the way christians should live.  Jesus preached about a new law, He lived as an example for those under the new law, and He died that we might have a new law.  The four gospels are all accounts of the life of the Man that gave us the New Testament.

    Gen 11:1 states that there was only one language, but how is this possible if Gen 10:5, 20, and 31 seem to say that there were more languages before the tower of Babel was built?

Sincerely,
Tongue-Tied

Dear Tongue-Tied,

The book of Genesis is like all history books and sometimes gives us a big-picture view of events and then goes back to fill in the details.  Genesis 10 gives us the genealogies of the nations and peoples that descended from Noah after the Flood (Gen 10:1).  These genealogies cover the time before the Tower of Babel, and they also cover the generations after the Tower of Babel.  After giving a full picture of those who descended from Noah, Genesis 11 goes back to fill in the details of how people got their different languages and what caused them to spread out across the globe.

     One of my friends is being lead to believe that there were people before Adam and Eve.  Is there truth to this?

Sincerely,
Family Tree Tracer

Dear Family Tree Tracer,

No, there isn’t any truth to that.  Sit down with your friend and read through the first chapters of the book of Genesis.  Those chapters explain what happened in the beginning of the world (Gen 1:1).  Adam and Eve were the first two created humans.  Eve is the mother of all the living (Gen 3:20). You can confidently show your friend what the Bible says about the first two humans.  After doing this, have your friend ask the other people they have been talking with to give them book, chapter, and verse for their position.

Can you explain what’s going on in Numbers 31:25-41, especially regarding what happens to both the animals and people captured after being divided and given to Eleazar the priest as a tribute for God or as a heave offering of Jehovah?

Sincerely,
Heave-Ho!

Dear Heave-Ho,

In Numbers 31, Moses was to lead the Israelites in battle against the Midianites (Num 31:1-2).  After the battle, the army had to decide what to do with the plunder from the land (Num 31:12).  God told them to split the plunder 50/50 between the soldiers who fought and the rest of the nation (Num 31:26-27).  The soldiers were told to take 1/500^th of their share of the plunder and give it to the priest (Num 31:28-29).  Of the half that went to the rest of the nation, 1/50^th was to be given to the Levites (Num 31:30-31).  The verses you mentioned simply address a practical matter of dividing the spoils of war.

    After Christ’s sacrifice, the Old Testament law things were done away with (like circumcision and animal sacrifices), so then, why does James say to abstain from blood in Acts 15:20 and also in a letter saying the same thing in Acts 15:29 if this, too, was part of the Old Testament law?  And is this after Jesus’ death?

Sincerely,
Legal Trouble

Dear Legal Trouble,

Not every Old Testament law was done away with in the New Testament.  For example, murder is wrong in both the New and Old Testament (Rom 1:29, Ex 20:13).  Christians are not bound to follow the Old Testament law because we are no longer under that law (Gal 3:24-25), but if an Old Testament law is repeated in the New Testament, that means the rule is applicable to christians.

The Old Testament laws concerning what could and could not be eaten can be found in Lev. 11, but there is only one type of food that christians still cannot eat – blood (Acts 15:29).  When an animal is killed, some cultures will strangle the animal so as to keep the blood in the meat (as opposed to draining the blood out).  Things like blood sausage, blood soup, blood stew, etc. are popular dishes in some countries, but eating them is wrong.  All other food is clean for New Testament christians… Jesus said so Himself in Mk 7:19.

     Has God ever approved of polygamy?

Sincerely,
Double Vows?

Dear Double Vows,

Polygamy is never expressly condemned in the Bible.  It is also never treated as the standard… only the exception.  There are scores of examples of monogamy being God’s preference for man:

1. Adam & Eve were designed monogamously (Gen. 2:24).
2. No polygamy existed until seven generations after Adam (Gen 4:19).
3. Noah, the last righteous man of his day, had only one wife (Gen 7:13).
4. It is a qualification for an elder (Tit 1:6).
5. It is a qualification for a deacon (1 Tim 3:12).
6. It is a qualification for a worthy widow (1 Tim 5:9).
7. Every New Testament command for a husband or wife assumes monogamy in the commandments (Mk 10:12, 1 Cor 7:3, Eph 5:33, etc.).
8. The comparison of Christ and the church to a husband and wife relies on a monogamous design for marriage (Eph 5:22-23).
9. God clearly states it as His design for marriage in the New Testament (1 Cor 7:2).

On the same hand, there are multiple examples of the pitfalls of polygamy:

1. Sarah and Hagar fought (Gen 16:4).
2. Rachel and Leah fought over Jacob (Gen 29:30-31).
3. Hannah and Penninah’s rivalry (1 Sam 1:2-6)
4. Solomon’s idolatrous wives (1 Kings 11:4)

God allowed polygamy in the Old Testament because the Old Testament was a tutor designed to lead people toward a better and more permanent covenant (Gal 3:24-25).  David lived in a time when God allowed polygamy even though it wasn’t His long-term preference for mankind.  In the New Testament, we are told God desires for marriage to be between one man and one woman (1 Cor 7:2).

     Does the last psalm have any practical value today?

Sincerely,
Sing It

Dear Sing It,

Most of the Psalms don’t have practical value; they have emotional value and provide moral strength.  Psalm 150 is a call to praise the Lord, a reminder of God’s glory and how we ought to place Him first in all we do.  Ps 150 doesn’t tell us how to praise God today, but it does tell us the importance of praising God and exalting His unending glory.  If we want to know how to praise God, we must look to the New Testament.

    Do you know why the medium freaked out after seeing the ghostly Samuel (1 Sam 28:12)?

Sincerely,
Surprise Me

Dear Surprise Me,

One reason she was so scared was because once she realized that the man who had hired her to conjure up a ghost was King Saul, she feared for her life.  Saul had previously cast out all the mediums from the land (1 Sam 28:3).  The other likely reason was that she had never actually seen a ghost!  Mediums and sorcerors were charlatans back then just as much as they are today.

How do the gospel writers reapply the Law of Moses for the New Testaments communities of faith?  Also, what aspects of the Law, if any, are still in operation, and what aspects are no longer binding over God’s people? Thanks.

Sincerely,
Law Learner

Dear Law Learner,

Jesus was born a Jew (Matt 1:17), lived under the Jewish law (Lk 2:41-42), and even taught His fellow Jews to obey the Old Testament law (Matt 23:1-3).  Judaism was the right religion, until Jesus died on the cross and replaced Judaism with Christianity.  The Old Testament, the law the Jews followed, was a tutor to lead people to Christ, but after Jesus came, mankind was supposed to follow Him instead (Gal 3:24-25).  The Jewish law said that someday there would come a Messiah who would save them from their sins – Jesus was that Messiah (Jhn 1:45).  The Jewish law taught mankind that they needed a Savior, and that they should prepare for His coming.  Jesus came providing the grace and truth that wasn’t possible under Jewish law (Jhn 1:17).  Jesus’ death made a permanent sacrifice for sins that none of the Old Testament animal sacrifices ever could (Heb 10:1-4).

The Old Testament was a tutor to lead us to Christ (Gal 3:24), but now that Christ is here, He has fulfilled the law, and we are no longer bound by its laws (Gal 3:25).  The Old Testament still provides many wonderful examples and lessons of morality (1 Cor 10:11), but its specific laws no longer apply.

     Why does Joseph run out without his coat when his master’s wife seduced him?

Sincerely,
Feeling Chilly

Dear Feeling Chilly,

He left his coat because it was more important to avoid sin than to keep his jacket.  When Potiphar’s wife tried to force Joseph to commit adultery with her, he fled as fast as he could from her… even though that meant leaving his coat behind because she was holding on so tightly (Gen 39:10-12).  God tells us to flee fornication (1 Cor 6:18), and it is better to lose things and have clean hands than to let sin drag us down to hell (Matt 16:26).  Joseph did the right thing.

     Does your local congregation use incense in your worship service?  If the “pure offering” referred to in Mal 1:11 is the lives of the people of the New Testament Church (as you say), then when does your congregation “offer incense” in God’s name?  Remember, you have previously stated, “If you avoid or ignore verses, that is just as bad as adding to the Bible (Rev 22:18-19).  We have to take every Bible teaching, no matter how unpopular, and accept it in order to truly call ourselves a ‘Bible-only’ congregation.”

Thanks.

Sincerely,
Burning To Know

Dear Burning To Know,

Just like the offerings mentioned in the previous post aren’t literal animal sacrifices, the “incense” that the church sends up to God isn’t literally on fire.  Mal 1:11 is a verse dealing with general principles of the church’s behavior in the way that an Old Testament Jew acquainted with Old Testament worship could understand.  The Bible says that the lives of the righteous are like the sweet smell of incense before those that are perishing (2 Cor 2:14-16).  Rev 8:3-4 also compares our prayers to burning incense.  In either case, nowhere is the church asked to burn incense as a part of worship.  Mal 1:11 would have to be taken out of context to use it as a proof text for incense as an act of New Testament worship.

     How am I to understand Psalm 19:1-4 when it says, “The heavens declare the glory of God, and the firmament shows His handiwork.  Day unto day utters speech, and night unto night reveals knowledge.  There is no speech nor language where their voice is not heard.  Their line has gone out through all the earth and their words to the end of the world.  In them, He has set a tabernacle for the sun.”(NIV)?

Sincerely,
Declaring My Confusion

Dear Declaring My Confusion,

Ps 19:1-4 is dealing with the same issue as Rom 1:20.  God designed the world, so it would be a testimony to Him.  God’s invisible attributes are so clearly seen in this world that it is as if the heavens are literally crying out about God’s glory.  Paul quoted Psalm 19 in Rom 10:18 as a proof that all mankind has evidence of God’s existence.  His creation leaves us without excuse.

     What is the “pure offering” referred to in this Old Testament prophecy?  Malachi 1:11 “‘For from the rising of the sun even unto the going down of the same, My name shall be great among the Gentiles, and in every place, incense shall be offered unto My name, and a pure offering: for My name shall be great among the heathen,’ says the LORD of hosts.”

Sincerely,
Offering Up A Question

Dear Offering Up A Question,

The pure offering that the church will provide God with is in contrast to the polluted offerings that the Jewish nation was giving God.  Mal 1:7-8 says that the Jews were offering blemished, lame, and sick animals to God – the exact opposite of what they were supposed to do (Ex 12:5).  Israel worshipped God with the worst of what they had, instead of giving God the best of their lives and flocks.

In the church, the Lord’s people offer their lives as living sacrifices to God (Rom 12:1), and God’s people love Him with a whole heart.  The church doesn’t just offer God their pure offerings at Jerusalem like the Jews did; the church gives God their offerings all across the globe (Jhn 4:20-23).

     I don’t understand this scripture: “Surely I was sinful at birth, sinful from the time my mother conceived me.” (Psalm 51:5 NIV)

Was I born a sinner?  I thought all children were born sinless?

Sincerely,
Troubled

Dear Troubled,

The NIV reading of that text sure sounds like David is saying that he was born in sin, but the NIV isn’t a word-for-word translation and takes liberty in translating that verse (read “What’s The Best Translation” for more details on Bible translations).  Other translations, such as the New American Standard and New King James (much more literal translations), simply say “I was brought forth in iniquity.” (NKJV)  This is a much more generic statement than saying David was born sinful.  Ps 51:5 could mean one of two things:

1. David was born sinful.
2. David was born into a sinful world.

We need to look at other verses to see what the Bible teaches about babies being born in sin.  The sum teachings of the Bible say that babies are born without sin, and babies are perfect in God’s sight (even David, the writer of Psalm 51, recognized that his dead child was going to be in heaven [2 Sam 12:23]).  Sin is not a birthright; it is a choice (Gen 4:6-7, Jas 1:13-15).  Humans sin when they choose to do wrong; they are not born in sin.

The false teaching of ‘original sin’ is very common in today’s society.  If a congregation teaches that you are born in sin, they are false teachers. Sin is a choice we make in life (Isa 7:15-16), and all humans are born upright and good (Eccl 7:29).

     In Exodus 12, God said that you must perform a ritual by eating a lamb or goat.  Are we still supposed to eat a lamb or goat to remember Passover?

Sincerely,
Hungry

Dear Hungry,

The Passover was a Jewish festival that the Jews celebrated every year in remembrance of when God ‘passed over’ their homes during the Egyptian curses (Ex 12:27).  It was a Jewish feast for Jewish people – christians are not bound to keep it.  We have a new Passover lamb, and we celebrate His sacrifice every time we take the Lord’s Supper (1 Cor 5:7).

     I ran across an old Scandinavian myth that mentioned that in Genesis one, God created man and woman.  Then in Genesis two, He took a rib from Adam and created Eve.  Was there a woman created before Eve?

Sincerely,
Missing A Missus?

Dear Missing A Missus,

Scandinavian myths aside (after all, they call them ‘myths’ for a reason), the Bible teaches that Adam and Eve were the first man and woman.  The confusion comes when people read Genesis 1 and see that God made man and woman and then read Genesis 2 and see God making man and woman all over again.  The key is to realize that chapter one is an overview of the entire six days of creation (which includes the creation of man on day six), and Genesis chapter two is a more detailed account of what happened when God made Adam and Eve.

Think of chapter two as a microscope honing in to get a closer look at the most important detail of the creation story – the creation of humans.